Protamine

Q: Risk of side effects with protamine increases in all of the following patients except? 

 A) allergy to fish 
B) previous vasectomy 
C) severe left ventricular dysfunction 
 D) end stage renal disease (ESRD) 
E) abnormal pulmonary hemodynamics 


Answer: D

Side effects of protamine sulfate include hypotension, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, severe pulmonary vasoconstriction, and pulmonary hypertension. Unfortunately there are many risk factors which are not easy to identify. Risk factors include rapid administration, previous administration of protamine-containing drugs like NPH insulin, and some beta-blockers, allergy to fish, previous vasectomy, and severe left ventricular dysfunction.

Renal or hepatic failure does not augment protamine reactions.

#pharmacology


Reference: 

Caravati EM. Protamine sulfate. Medical Toxicology. 3rd ed. Dart RC, ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins; 2004;243-244.

BUN;Cr ratio in GI bleed

Q: Patients with acute lower Gastro-intestinal (GI) bleeding with normal kidney function tends to have a normal blood urea nitrogen and creatinine (BUN:Cr) ratio? (select one)

A) True
B) False

Answer: A

Looking at BUN:Cr ratio is an excellent and quick method to differentiate between acute upper and lower GI bleed. Patients with acute lower GI bleeding and normal kidney function is very unlikely to have BUN:Cr ratio > 20:1.

#gastroenterology


Reference:

Mortensen PB, Nøhr M, Møller-Petersen JF, Balslev I. The diagnostic value of serum urea/creatinine ratio in distinguishing between upper and lower gastrointestinal bleeding. A prospective study. Dan Med Bull 1994; 41:237.

Language aura

Q: 33-year-old female is admitted to ICU with dysarthria and possible stroke. Neurology service made a diagnosis of crossed aura. What is crossed aura?


Answer: Crossed aura is associated with migraine and can be very deceiving. It is also known as language aura. In most people i.e. right-handed individuals, language is lateralized to the left hemisphere. If there is a lesion in the right cerebral hemisphere, it may manifest as wording difficulties, dysphasia or paraphasic errors.

#neurology


Reference:

Martins IP. Crossed aphasia during migraine aura: transcallosal spreading depression?. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry. 2007;78(5):544–545. 

ACS

Q: Extremity with acute compartment syndrome (ACS) should be? (select one)

A) Elevated to relieve pressure
B) Put in a dependent position
C) None of the above
D) Any of the above


Answer: C

Limb with ACS should not either be elevated or put in a dependent position. Elevating the extremity compromised the arterial inflow resulting in tissue hypoxia, and putting it in a dependent position exacerbates the compartment pressure.

#vascular
#surgical-critical-care


Reference:

Styf J, Wiger P. Abnormally increased intramuscular pressure in human legs: comparison of two experimental models. J Trauma 1998; 45:133.

tracheoarterial fistula

Q: The complication of tracheoarterial fistula after tracheostomy occurs due to erosion from the tracheal tube into? (select one) 

A) anterior wall of the trachea 
B) posterior wall of the trachea


Answer: A

More than 80% of the patients die if tracheal tube ends up forming tracheoarterial fistula. It requires immediate bedside physical tamponade of the vessel by passing a finger through the tracheostomy stoma. The above information is vital to know that the innominate artery passes anteriorly across the trachea, and tamponade should be done by pressing the finger inside the tracheal stoma anterior towards the sternum.

#procedures


References:

1.. Ridley, R. W.; Zwischenberger, J. B. (2006-08-01). "Tracheoinnominate fistula: surgical management of an iatrogenic disaster". The Journal of Laryngology & Otology. 120 (8): 676–680.  

2.. Scalise P, Prunk SR, Healy D, Votto J. The incidence of tracheoarterial fistula in patients with chronic tracheostomy tubes: a retrospective study of 544 patients in a long-term care facility. Chest 2005; 128:3906. 

Organophosphate poisoning

Q: Atropine is considered as a mainstay antidote in organophosphate poisoning. The best marker of its effectiveness and titration is? (select one) 

A) respiratory secretions 
B)tachycardia 
C) mydriasis



Answer: A

Atropine is considered as an antidote of organophosphate poisoning. There is no maximum dose, and should be used till the symptoms are resolved. It may require continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. Poison center/toxicologist should be called immediately for the guidance of doses at every step.

 Atropine prevents cholinergic activation by competing for acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. Resolution of respiratory secretions and bronchoconstriction are the best markers of resolving organophosphate poisoning and effectiveness of atropine. Heart rate and pupillary reactions can be very deceiving as they are subject to be highly influenced by hypoxemia, intravascular dehydration, and sympathetic stimulation.

#toxicology


Reference:

Eddleston M, Roberts D, Buckley N. Management of severe organophosphorus pesticide poisoning. Crit Care 2002; 6:259.

Adrenal crisis

Q: All of the following are the symptoms of acute bilateral adrenal injury except? 

A) Circulatory shock 
B) Abdominal pain 
C) Fever 
D) Nausea &/or vomiting 
E) Hyperpigmented skin 


Answer: E 

Acute adrenal injury may occur due to hemorrhage, and/or infarction. The most common etiologies are motor vehicle accidents (blunt trauma), DIC, hemorrhage or emboli due to other reasons, sepsis and adrenal vein thrombosis.  Recently, Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) has been recognized as a major cause of acute adrenal insufficiency.

Hyperpigmentation of skin requires time, and it is not one of the symptoms in acute adrenal shock.

#endocrinology


References:

1. Neary N, Nieman L. Adrenal insufficiency: etiology, diagnosis and treatment. Curr Opin Endocrinol Diabetes Obes. 2010;17(3):217–223.

2. Rao RH, Vagnucci AH, Amico JA. Bilateral massive adrenal hemorrhage: early recognition and treatment. Ann Intern Med 1989; 110:227.

3.  Warkentin TE, Safyan EL, Linkins LA. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia presenting as bilateral adrenal hemorrhages. N Engl J Med 2015; 372:492.

Melena

Q: What amount of blood is enough to manifest melena?

A) 5 mL
B) 10 mL
C) 50 mL
D) 100 mL 
E) 250 mL

Answer: C

The objective of the above question is to highlight the point that the severity of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed cannot be predicted due to the presence of black tarry stool, known as melena. The only thing it signifies is that the location of blood is probably proximal to the ligament of Treitz, if obvious ENT source is excluded. 

Instead, of melena, if hematochezia i.e. maroon-colored stool is observed, it is probably due to lower GI bleeding or massive upper GI bleeding.

#Gastroenterology 


References:

1. Cappell MS, Friedel D. Initial management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding: from initial evaluation up to gastrointestinal endoscopy. Med Clin North Am 2008; 92:491. 

2.  Jensen DM, Machicado GA. Diagnosis and treatment of severe hematochezia. The role of urgent colonoscopy after purge. Gastroenterology 1988; 95:1569.

TLICS score

Q: In Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), which of the spine injury morphology has the highest points? 

A) Compression fractures
B) Burst fractures
C) Rotational fractures 
D) Distraction fractures


Answer: D

Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS) is based on three categories i.e. injury morphology, neurologic status, and integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex -which are further subclassified. Score calculators are available on public search engines. In injury morphology, distraction fractures have the highest i.e., 4 points.

Describing the whole score is beyond the scope of this page but a score ≥5 suggests operative treatment, and a score ≤3 suggests stability.

#trauma
#neurology


References:

Vaccaro AR, Lehman RA Jr, Hurlbert RJ, et al. A new classification of thoracolumbar injuries: the importance of injury morphology, the integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex, and neurologic status. Spine (Phila Pa 1976) 2005; 30:2325.

false positive Allen test

Q: What is the most common cause of false-positive modified Allen test?


Answer:  Over-extension of the wrist.

Modified Allen test is considered a requirement before inserting a radial arterial line but unfortunately, many factors may give false positive or false negative tests. Top three reasons for false-positive modified Allen test are an overextension of the wrist, skin tension over the ulnar artery, and an inexperienced operator.

Pulse oximetry and plethysmography are reasonable alternatives for more objective evaluation of palmar arch perfusion than modified Allen test.

#procedure


References:

1. Barbeau GR, Arsenault F, Dugas L, et al. Evaluation of the ulnopalmar arterial arches with pulse oximetry and plethysmography: comparison with the Allen's test in 1010 patients. Am Heart J 2004; 147:489. 

2. Benit E, Vranckx P, Jaspers L, et al. Frequency of a positive modified Allen's test in 1,000 consecutive patients undergoing cardiac catheterization. Cathet Cardiovasc Diagn 1996; 38:352.

Oral Milrinone

Q: Oral milrinone can be substituted for intravenous (IV) infusion if a long term central venous access cannot be obtained in a patient? (select one) 

A) True
B) False


Answer:  B

Unfortunately, oral phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as milrinone or vesnarinone failed to show any benefit, instead showed harm in major studies.  In comparison to IV infusion, oral phosphodiesterase inhibitors were found to cause more arrhythmias and so cardiac death. 

It is still not clear why oral form causes more harm. It could be due to longer accumulation and slower metabolism of the drugs.

#cardiology


References:

1. Packer M, Carver JR, Rodeheffer RJ, et al. Effect of oral milrinone on mortality in severe chronic heart failure. The PROMISE Study Research Group. N Engl J Med 1991; 325:1468. 

2. Amsallem E, Kasparian C, Haddour G, et al. Phosphodiesterase III inhibitors for heart failure. Cochrane Database Syst Rev 2005; :CD002230. 

3. Cohn JN, Goldstein SO, Greenberg BH, et al. A dose-dependent increase in mortality with vesnarinone among patients with severe heart failure. Vesnarinone Trial Investigators. N Engl J Med 1998; 339:1810.

HIT and 4Ts score

Q: The 4 Ts score in the initial diagnosis of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is found to be better than clinical judgment? (select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer:  B

 It is important to make awareness (again and again) that no score substitute or supersede the clinical judgment in the diagnosis of HIT. 4Ts is found to be a very reliable and a good guide in the presumptive diagnosis of HIT, but clinical judgment still carries the higher weight. This is to note that with any missed diagnosis of HIT, the mortality rose to 20% and with proper diagnosis, the mortality in HIT drops down to 2%. 

 #hematology 


 Reference: 

 Lo GK, Juhl D, Warkentin TE, et al. Evaluation of pretest clinical score (4 T's) for the diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia in two clinical settings. J Thromb Haemost 2006; 4:759.

Tacrolimus

Q; What is the oral to the intravenous (IV) conversion of tacrolimus?


Answer: One-third to one-fifth

Whenever post-transplant patients get admitted to ICU, their anti-rejection meds (immunosuppressant) should be continued unless there is a contraindication. Tacrolimus is one of the most commonly used immunosuppressants. 

If a patient can't take oral form, the IV dose conversation is equal to one-third to one-fifth of the oral daily dose. Another important point is to administer it as a continuous infusion over 24 hours.

It is to remember that now a sublingual form of tacrolimus is available also.

#transplantation
#pharmacology


Reference: 

1. Prograf - https://www.astellas.us/docs/prograf.pdf 

2. Catherine A. Pennington, M.S., Pharm.D., BCPS Jeong M. Park, M.S., Pharm.D., BCPS Sublingual tacrolimus as an alternative to oral administration for solid organ transplant recipients American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy, Volume 72, Issue 4, 15 February 2015, Pages 277–284

bacterial aortitis

Q: Which organism is most common in bacterial aortitis? 



 Answer: Salmonella 

Salmonella counts for about one-third of all bacterial aortitis. Unfortunately, about 5% of Salmonella infections become bacteremic, and they have a high tendency to adhere to damaged tissues particularly atherosclerotic vascular endothelium. Persisting fever or abdominal pain after salmonella infection should raise the concern for bacterial aortitis especially in smokers and male above the age of 50. Blood cultures are usually positive. Surgical repair is usually required.

Very interestingly, patients who are on chronic anti-acidity drugs like proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have an increased risk of Salmonella bacteremia.

#surgical-critical-care
#infectious-diseases


References:

1. Oskoui R, Davis WA, Gomes MN (1993) Salmonella aortitis. Arch Intern Med 153:517–525. Barlow, G. D., & Green, S. T. (1999). 

2. A patient with fever and an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Postgraduate medical journal, 75(886), 479–480. doi:10.1136/pgmj.75.886.479

Fever in Adrenal crisis

Q: Low cortisol level? (select one)

A) May mask the fever
B) May exaggerate the fever


Answer: B

Fever secondary to low cortisol can be very deceiving. As sepsis itself can cause low cortisol, it sometimes becomes impossible to determine the actual cause of fever. On the flip side, treating adrenal insufficiency may make the fever go down, and help in the treatment.

#endocrinology



References:

1. Bleicken B, Hahner S, Ventz M, Quinkler M. Delayed diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency is common: a cross-sectional study in 216 patients. Am J Med Sci. 2010; 339: 525-531
  2. Dorin R. Qualls C. Crapo L. Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Ann Intern Med. 2003; 139: 194-204

3. Husebye ES Allolio B Arlt W et al. Consensus statement on the diagnosis, treatment and follow-up of patients with primary adrenal insufficiency. J Intern Med. 2014; 275: 104-115

PEEP in prone

Q: Patient in prone position should be given higher than usual Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) to correct ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch? (select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer: B

Higher PEEP in patients with prone position while on a ventilator, may make V/Q mismatch worse. Higher applied PEEP in prone position redistribute blood flow to the dependent portion of the lung which is ventral portion in prone position, causing out of proportion redistribution of ventilation, resulting in worsening of  V/Q mismatch.

This is in contrast to regular supine patients where applied PEEP causes a homogeneous redistribution of ventilation and blood flow to the dependent portion, which is dorsal in this case.

#ventilator
#pulmonary


Reference:

Petersson J, Ax M, Frey J, et al. Positive end-expiratory pressure redistributes regional blood flow and ventilation differently in supine and prone humans. Anesthesiology 2010; 113:1361.

MG and thymectomy

Q: Thymectomy should be performed even in non-thymomatous myasthenia gravis (MG)? ( select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer: A

The famous multi-center MGTX trial, published in 2016 has pretty much resolved the above controversy. 126 patients were randomized between extended transsternal thymectomy plus alternate-day prednisone, and alternate-day prednisone alone. 

The former group did better over three years with the time-weighted average Quantitative Myasthenia Gravis score. Also, the average requirement for alternate-day prednisone and hospitalization for MG exacerbations was lower thymectomy group over three years. 

#surgical-critical-care


References:

 Wolfe GI, Kaminski HJ, Aban IB, et al. Randomized Trial of Thymectomy in Myasthenia Gravis. N Engl J Med 2016; 375:511.

Epi and LA

Q: What's the etiology behind lactic acidosis from intravenous epinephrine infusion?


Answer: Out of all the intravenous vasopressors used in ICU, epinephrine is known to be the most notorious to cause lactic acidosis. Two mechanisms have been proposed. Postulation is that they may be happening together. One is the increased glycolytic activity in skeletal muscles and second is the hypoperfusion of gut causing lactic acidosis.

#pharmacology
#acid-base


Reference:

Day NP, Phu NH, Bethell DP, et al. The effects of dopamine and adrenaline infusions on acid-base balance and systemic haemodynamics in severe infection. Lancet 1996; 348:219.

Twiddler's syndrome

Case: 62-year-old male with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to ICU with syncope, arrhythmia, and exacerbation of CHF. EP-cardiologist diagnosed patient with twiddler's syndrome, which is the twisting of the cardiac implantable electronic device (CIED) pulse generator within its pocket. Patients with twiddler's syndrome are more likely to have? (select one) 

A) bradyarrhythmia 
B) tachyarrhythmia


Answer: A

Twiddler's syndrome as described above is the twisting of the cardiac implantable electronic device (CIED) pulse generator within its pocket. It causes dislodgement of the lead and malfunction of the device. This leads to either lead impedance or increase in the bradycardic pacing threshold. Said that, with malfunction device, CIED may not respond in case of ventricular arrhythmia. Precautions at the initial insertion may prevent this complication.

#cardilogy
#procedure


Reference:

Chaara J, Sunthorn H. Twiddler syndrome. J Cardiovasc Electrophysiol 2014; 25:659.

PONV gender

Q: Which gender is more prone to develop postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)? (select one)

A) Male
B) Female


Answer: B

A meta-analysis of 22 studies comprising of 95,000 patients found that postpubertal female has an odds ratio [OR] of 2.57 to develop PONV.

#surgical-critical-care
#gastro-enterology


References:

1. Apfel CC, Heidrich FM, Jukar-Rao S, et al. Evidence-based analysis of risk factors for postoperative nausea and vomiting. Br J Anaesth 2012; 109:742. 

2. Sinclair DR, Chung F, Mezei G. Can postoperative nausea and vomiting be predicted? Anesthesiology 1999; 91:109. 

3. Eberhart LH, Morin AM, Guber D, et al. Applicability of risk scores for postoperative nausea and vomiting in adults to paediatric patients. Br J Anaesth 2004; 93:386. 

WBC count in trauma

Q: High white blood cell (WBC) count after trauma is a predictor of poor outcome? (select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer: B

WBC count usually rises up to 12,000 to 20,000/mm3 with a left shift after trauma. It has no predictor value. The rise in WBC count could be only due to epinephrine release secondary to trauma (demargination), though viscus injury can also be the cause.

#trauma
#hematology


References:

Schnüriger B, Inaba K, Barmparas G, et al. Serial white blood cell counts in trauma: do they predict a hollow viscus injury? J Trauma 2010; 69:302.

Asimos AW, Gibbs MA, Marx JA, et al. Value of point-of-care blood testing in emergent trauma management. J Trauma 2000; 48:1101.

Protamine/heparin ratio

Q: What ratio of protamine/heparin is optimal for reversal of anticoagulation during post cardio-pulmonary bypass (CPB) phase?


Answer:  2.6 mg protamine per 100 units of heparin

 It is very interesting that if the ratio exceeds above 2.6 mg protamine per 100 units of heparin, this excess protamine is associated with inhibited platelet function and factor V activation, prolonged activated whole blood clotting time (ACT), and excessive bleeding after CPB.

#surgical critical-care


References:

1. Shore-Lesserson L, Baker RA, Ferraris VA, et al. The Society of Thoracic Surgeons, The Society of Cardiovascular Anesthesiologists, and The American Society of ExtraCorporeal Technology: Clinical Practice Guidelines-Anticoagulation During Cardiopulmonary Bypass. Ann Thorac Surg 2018; 105:650.

2. Boer C, Meesters MI, Veerhoek D, Vonk ABA. Anticoagulant and side-effects of protamine in cardiac surgery: a narrative review. Br J Anaesth 2018; 120:914. 

3. Mochizuki T, Olson PJ, Szlam F, et al. Protamine reversal of heparin affects platelet aggregation and activated clotting time after cardiopulmonary bypass. Anesth Analg 1998; 87:781. 

4. Ni Ainle F, Preston RJ, Jenkins PV, et al. Protamine sulfate down-regulates thrombin generation by inhibiting factor V activation. Blood 2009; 114:1658.

Thiamine def. and WE

Q: The best way to determine thiamine deficiency in Wernicke encephalopathy (WE) is via blood level? (select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer: B

There is no direct blood test available to document thiamine deficiency. The only test available is measuring erythrocyte thiamine transketolase (ETKA) before and after the addition of thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP). A low ETKA, along with a more than 25 percent stimulation, confirms thiamine deficiency. Also, serum thiamine or serum thiamine pyrophosphate level can be obtained by high-performance liquid chromatography. Both of these tests are special tests and are not easily available. Also, they do not correlate well with clinical signs. 

Thiamine deficiency gets establish by clinical signs and diagnostic criteria named Caine criteria. WE is diagnostic with two of the four Caine criteria positive: 

 ●Dietary deficiency 
 ●Oculomotor abnormalities 
 ●Cerebellar dysfunction 
 ●Either altered mental status or memory impairment


#neurology
#laboratory-science



References:

1. Galvin R, Bråthen G, Ivashynka A, et al. EFNS guidelines for diagnosis, therapy and prevention of Wernicke encephalopathy. Eur J Neurol 2010; 17:1408. 

2. Caine D, Halliday GM, Kril JJ, Harper CG. Operational criteria for the classification of chronic alcoholics: identification of Wernicke's encephalopathy. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1997; 62:51. 

3. Leigh, D. Erythrocyte transketolase activity in the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Br J Psychol 1981; 138:153.  

4. Lu J, Frank EL. Rapid HPLC measurement of thiamine and its phosphate esters in whole blood. Clin Chem 2008; 54:901. 

refrigerated urine

Q: The excess urine can be refrigerated for future use, and can be examined later at 2 to 8 degrees? (select one)

A) True
B) False


Answer: B

It is true that excess urine can be refrigerated at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius but urine should always be examined at room temperature. Refrigerated urine should be re-warmed to room temperature before the examination. Ideally, a urine sample should be examined at room temperature within two hours of obtainment.

#laboratory-medicine
#nephrology


Reference:

Simerville JA, Maxted WC, Pahira JJ. Urinalysis: a comprehensive review. Am Fam Physician. 2005 Mar 15;71(6):1153-62.

supranuclear gaze palsy after cardiac surgery

Q: A supranuclear gaze palsy is more common after? (select one) 

 A) mitral valve replacement 
B) aortic valve replacement


Answer: B

A Supranuclear gaze palsy is under-recognized but a well known complication after cardiac surgeries, specially aortic valve replacement and repair of an ascending aortic dissection. It is usually accompanied by spastic dysarthria and gait disorder. This is probably due to ischemic injury to the midbrain, or brainstem.

#surgical-critical-care
#neurology


References: 

1.  Solomon D, Ramat S, Tomsak RL, et al. Saccadic palsy after cardiac surgery: characteristics and pathogenesis. Ann Neurol 2008; 63:355.

2.  Devere TR, Lee AG, Hamill MB, et al. Acquired supranuclear ocular motor paresis following cardiovascular surgery. J Neuroophthalmol 1997; 17:189.

3. Mokri B, Ahlskog JE, Fulgham JR, Matsumoto JY. Syndrome resembling PSP after surgical repair of ascending aorta dissection or aneurysm. Neurology 2004; 62:971.

Pleural effusion due to perforated esophagus

Q: Pleural effusion due to perforated esophagus would be? (selected one)

 A) exudative
B) transudative


Answer: A

Pleural effusion developed after esophageal perforation would probably be an exudative. Other marker would be lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 1000 international units/L. Most importantly, and diagnostic would be pleural fluid to serum amylase ratio >1. 

#pulmonary
#surgical-critical-care
#gastroenterology


References:

Good JT Jr, Antony VB, Reller LB, et al. The pathogenesis of the low pleural fluid pH in esophageal rupture. Am Rev Respir Dis 1983; 127:702. 

Drury M, Anderson W, Heffner JE. Diagnostic value of pleural fluid cytology in occult Boerhaave's syndrome. Chest 1992; 102:976.

Jon Arne Søreide and Asgaut Viste Esophageal perforation: diagnostic work-up and clinical decision-making in the first 24 hours Scandinavian Journal of Trauma, Resuscitation and Emergency Medicine 2011 19:66

False positive Dig level

Q: Name a few conditions which may give false positive digoxin level despite no digoxin is ingested?

Answer:  It is interesting that few clinical conditions may give positive digoxin level even if there is no digoxin ingested. It may mislead the clinician. This is particularly important in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), liver insufficiency, and renal insufficiency. This phenomenon is also reported in pregnant women, newborns, and in patients with acromegaly.

#pharmacology
#toxicology


Reference:

Dasgupta A. Endogenous and exogenous digoxin-like immunoreactive substances: impact on therapeutic drug monitoring of digoxin. Am J Clin Pathol 2002; 118:132.

Salivary gland dysfunction

Q; 78 year old male with a past medical history of Parkinson disease is admitted to ICU with stroke. This patient is prone to have? (select one)

A) xerostomia 
B) Sialorrhea


Answer: B

Major neuro-muscular diseases prone to cause Sialorrhea (excess drooling) are amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, cerebral palsy, stroke, and Parkinson disease. Actually, this is not a true salivary gland dysfunction but saliva pools in the mouth due to a disability of swallowing. Similarly, it is also common in patients with Alzheimer's disease or myasthenia gravis as these patient are treated with reversible cholinesterase inhibitors.

#neurology


Reference:

Hockstein NG, Samadi DS, Gendron K, Handler SD. Sialorrhea: a management challenge. Am Fam Physician 2004; 69:2628.

Chikungunya fever

Q: 74 year old male with past medical history of brittle diabetes who recently returned from Africa is admitted to ICU with hypovolemia,  cutaneous rash, fever, joint pains, and sepsis. Astute infectious disease physician diagnosed the Chikungunya fever. This infection is due to? (select one)

A) Mosquito bites
B) Rodent exposure
C) Canine bites
D) droplet exposure
E) post-surgical infection


Answer: A

Chikungunya is a word from an Africa's Kimakonde language which means "stooped walk". As the name applies, it affects the joints. It is an acute febrile inflammatory polyarthralgia due to a virus transmitted by mosquitoes. Suspected cases can be confirmed through viral isolation, PCR, and serology. Treatment is supportive.

#infectious-diseases


References:  

1. Cabié A, Ledrans M, Abel S (July 2015). "Chikungunya Virus Infections". The New England Journal of Medicine. 373 (1): 94 

2. Simon F, Javelle E, Cabie A, et al. French guidelines for the management of chikungunya (acute and persistent presentations). November 2014. Med Mal Infect 2015; 45:243. 

3. Monge P, Vega JM, Sapag AM, et al. Pan-American League of Associations for Rheumatology-Central American, Caribbean and Andean Rheumatology Association Consensus-Conference Endorsements and Recommendations on the Diagnosis and Treatment of Chikungunya-Related Inflammatory Arthropathies in Latin America. J Clin Rheumatol 2019; 25:101.

hemolysis

Q: Dark urine is consistent? (select one) 

 A) intravascular hemolysis 
B) extravascular hemolysis


Answer: A

Dark urine is due to hemoglobinuria indicates severe intravascular hemolysis. This occurs due to overwhelming absorptive capacity of the renal tubular cells. Hemosiderin in urine confirms intravascular free hemoglobin, getting filtered by the kidneys. Also, Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is elevated in patients with intravascular hemolysis.

In extravascular hemolysis, spleen and liver macrophage Fc receptors bind immunoglobulin attached to RBCs and then either ingest small portions of the RBC membrane creating spherocytes or phagocytizing the RBCs. 

#hematology


Reference:

Rother RP, Bell L, Hillmen P, Gladwin MT. The clinical sequelae of intravascular hemolysis and extracellular plasma hemoglobin: a novel mechanism of human disease. JAMA. 2005 Apr 6;293(13):1653-62.