Pupils in hypothermia

Q: Hypothermia causes? (select one)

A) Unreactive pupils
B) Hyperreactive pupils


Answer: A

In patients who present with hypothermia, this is an important clinical sign to know as it may quickly deceive the examiner and may lead to false diagnosis with other signs of hypothermia. A recent work from Mayo 1 shows that it may take at least up to 3 days before any definitive assessment can be made, and actually, a good outcome is possible in some of these patients.

#Neurology
#Physicalexam
#hypothermia



References:

1. Dhakal LP and et al - Early Absent Pupillary Light Reflexes After Cardiac Arrest in Patients Treated with Therapeutic Hypothermia. Ther Hypothermia Temp Manag. 2016 Aug;6(3):116-21.

2. Fischbeck KH, Simon RP. Neurological manifestations of accidental hypothermia. Ann Neurol 1981; 10:384.

Reflex orders

Q: 52 year old male admitted to ICU with End Stage Liver Disease (ESLD) and awaiting transplant continues complain of debilitating nausea. Which of the following anti-emetic should be used with caution in this patient?

A) Ondansetron
B) Metoclopramide
C) Dexamethsone
D) Prochlorperazine 
E) Olanzapine


Answer:  A

The objective of above question is to highlight the habit of "reflex orders" in hospitals.

ESLD patients suffer from nausea due to bilirubinemia, ascites, and various other circulating toxins. Ondansetron is one of the most widely used, and "reflexly ordered" anti-emetic in hospital but in ESLD patients the dose should not exceed 8 mg per day. In ESLD patients metoclopramide can be used up to 60 mg per 24 hours and is very effective.

#hepatology
#pharmacology


References:

1. Rhee C, Broadbent AM. Palliation and liver failure: palliative medications dosage guidelines. J Palliat Med 2007; 10:677. 

2. Uribe M, Ballesteros A, Strauss R, et al. Successful administration of metoclopramide for the treatment of nausea in patients with advanced liver disease. A double-blind controlled trial. Gastroenterology 1985; 88:757.

TBI patients and dialysis

Q: Which of the following modality is preferred in hemodynamically stable patients with traumatic brain injury (TBI)? (select one)

A) Intermittent Hemodialysis (HD)
B) Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT)


Answer: B

Most critically ill patients with renal failure who are hemodynamically stable can be served with less labor intense HD. But patients with traumatic brain injury (TBI) or at high risk of developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP) benefit more from CRRT. 

Intermittent HD can harm patients with TBI via two mechanisms.

1. Rapid removal of urea causes a rapid shift of water to the intracellular space resulting in worsen cerebral edema.

2. Drop in mean arterial pressure (MAP) during HD results in compensatory cerebral vasodilation resulting in worsening cerebral edema. 


#Nephrology
#Surgicalcriticalcare




Reference: 

Macedo E, Mehta RL. Continuous Dialysis Therapies: Core Curriculum 2016. Am J Kidney Dis 2016; 68:645.

High nasogastric suction tubes output, severe hypokalemia and acid-base disorder

Q: High output via nasogastric suction tubes in ICU patients may result in severe hypokalemia and which acid-base disorder?  

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
E) Triple acid base disorder


Answer: C

Severe hypokalemia results in metabolic alkalosis due to an intracellular shift or loss of hydrogen ion. This is chloride-responsive metabolic alkalosis, means it can be suspected if urine chloride is < 10 mEq/L. 

In ICU, high output via nasogastric suction tubes is the most common cause of severe hypokalemia due to loss of hydrochloric acid (H+ and Cl-). Concomitant hyponatremia leads kidney to compensate by retaining sodium in the collecting ducts at the expense of hydrogen ions.

#acidbase
#gastroenterology
#nephrology


Reference:

Hennessey, Iain. Japp, Alan.Arterial Blood Gases Made Easy. Churchill Livingstone 1 edition (18 Sep 2007).

uremic encephalopathy

Q; 52 year old male with End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) missed his two dialysis sessions in a row and admitted to ICU with volume overload, hyperkalemia, acidosis and acute uremic encephalopathy. The patient required intubation. Emergent dialysis is instituted. The patient recovered from all symptoms but remained lethargic preventing his liberation from the ventilator. What is the usual lag time between an institution of hemodialysis and resolution of acute uremic encephalopathy?



Answer: 24 - 48 hours

Fortunately,  uremic encephalopathy is generally in direct proportion to the severity of azotemia. It takes about 24 to 48 hours in ESRD patients for mental status to be back to normal before uremic toxins clear.


#Neurology
#Nephrology


References:

Bolton, CF, Young, GB. Uremic encephalopathy. In: Bolton, CF, Young, GB, (Eds), Neurological Complications of Renal Disease, Buttersworth, Stoneham 1990. p.44.

PDSS and LAI-antipsychotics

Case: Psychiatric service is consulted for a 74 year old male patient in ICU with resistant delirium, not amenable to any pharmacology or non-pharmacology interventions. Psychiatric resident on call wrote orders for "olanzapine-LAI" (LAI = Long Acting Injectable). After receiving ordered drug, patient symptoms worsens with more confusion, disorientation, periods of excessive sedation, and patient start manifestation of extrapyramidal symptoms. Psychiatric attending was called and he diagnosed patient with "Postinjection delirium sedation syndrome" (PDSS)?


Answer: 

LAI anti-psychotics are not getting used with more frequency. Though rare, but they may present with undesirable effect of PDSS which can equally be frightening to house-staff and nurses at workplace. Before ordering and administrating LAIs, it should be known that providers, institutions, and pharmacies need to be registered and receive proper in-service for its dispension. Moreover, it is required to observe patient on one to one basis (1:1) for at least three hours after dispension of each dose. So far 6 antipsychotics have been approved for LAI forms. Probable cause of PDSS is extreme peak level of drug in the first hour of administration. 

#Delirium
#Psychiatry


References:

1. Citrome L. Olanzapine pamoate: a stick in time? A review of the efficacy and safety profile of a new depot formulation of a second-generation antipsychotic. Int J Clin Pract 2009; 63:140. 

2. Detke HC, McDonnell DP, Brunner E, et al. Post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome in patients with schizophrenia treated with olanzapine long-acting injection, I: analysis of cases. BMC Psychiatry 2010; 10:43. 

Denervated donor heart

Q: Patients with previous heart transplant have (select one)

A) Supersensitive response to adenosine 
B) No response to adenosine


Answer: A

Contrary to popular belief, adenosine effect is exaggerated in patients who are heart transplant recipients. It reduces calcium influx into cardiac cells by antagonizing adenylate cyclase. It also increases potassium conductance.

Denervated donor heart has increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamine and adenosine.


#transplantation
#cardiology
Reference:

Koller-Strametz J, Kratochwill C, Grabenwöger M, et al. PR interval adaptation in the denervated transplanted heart. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1997; 20:1247.

acute diverticulitis

Q; 72 year old male is admitted to ICU with sepsis, left lower quadrant (LLQ) pain and lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. Diagnosis of acute diverticulitis is made. Which of the following procedure should NOT be performed in this patient?

A) CT scan of abdomen 
B) Colonoscopy
C) Ultrasound of LLQ
D) insertion of left femoral central line
E) Angiography of mesenteric vessel



Answer: B

Out of all the procedures or workup, colonoscopy in acute phase of diverticulitis can harm the patient with very high risk of perforation. 

CT scan is required to establish the diagnosis (choice A). Ultrasound may have a low yield and may not be of help, but it is not contra-indicated (choice C) in acute diverticulitis. Lower body central line insertions are discouraged in general but are not contra-indicated (choice D). Angiography may be of help in case of massive bleeding to localize the site of bleeding (choice E).

Colonoscopy can be performed after few weeks of resolution of acute episode to rule out underlying malignancy.


#Gastroenterology
References:

1. Jacobs DO. Clinical practice. Diverticulitis. N Engl J Med 2007; 357:2057 

2.Sharma PV, Eglinton T, Hider P, Frizelle F. Systematic review and meta-analysis of the role of routine colonic evaluation after radiologically confirmed acute diverticulitis. Ann Surg 2014; 259:263.

Surgery in ulcerative colitis

Q: All of the following are indications for emergency surgery in ulcerative colitis except?

A) Colonic perforation
B), Life-threatening colorectal  bleeding
C) Toxic megacolon
D) Acute fulminant colitis if they fail medical therapy
E) All of the above


Answer: D

Surgical intervention for ulcerative colitis falls into three categories

1. emergency surgery
2. urgent surgery
3. elective surgery

Patients with colonic perforation, life-threatening gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and toxic megacolon require emergency surgery.

Patients admitted to hospital who develop acute fulminant colitis  and do not respond to medical therapy are candidates for urgent surgery. Urgent surgery is defined as surgery on the same hospitalization.

Elective surgery should be decided on case to case basis as per indications for surgical guidelines from societies.



References: 

1.  Cima RR, Pemberton JH. Medical and surgical management of chronic ulcerative colitis. Arch Surg 2005; 140:300. 

2.  Andersson P, Söderholm JD. Surgery in ulcerative colitis: indication and timing. Dig Dis 2009; 27:335.

Edentulousness in difficult bag-mask ventilation

Q: Edentulousness (no teeth) is one of the reason for the difficult bag-mask ventilation (BMV) before/during intubation? 

A) True 
B) False 

 Answer: A (True) 

A proper set of teeth supports the cheeks and provides a framework against which the mask fits. 

Learning objective of this question is to leave patient dentures in situ while BMV is underway. They can be removed just before direct laryngoscopy for intubation. 

Besides this, other indications for difficult BMV are prior radiation, obesity, age, male gender, and others.


#procedures   


Reference:

Conlon NP, Sullivan RP, Herbison PG, et al. The effect of leaving dentures in place on bag-mask ventilation at induction of general anesthesia. Anesth Analg 2007; 105:370.

Angioedema

Q: Besides face, lips, larynx, uvula, extremities, and genitalia, which of the following organs are more prone to get affected by Angiotensin-converting-enzyme -Inhibitor (ACE-I) Induced Angio-edema?

A) Bowels
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Brain
E) Prostate



Answer: A

Intestinal angioedema due to ACE-I usually goes unnoticed as they are not apparently visible and mostly presents with colicky and tender abdominal pain. It mostly affects the small intestine. It is important to recognize as these patients can be at higher risk for life-threatening laryngeal angioedema. CT scan is usually diagnostic.

#pharmacology
#gastroenterology



References:

1. Chase MP, Fiarman GS, Scholz FJ, MacDermott RP. Angioedema of the small bowel due to an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. J Clin Gastroenterol. 2000;31(3):254-257. 

2 Schmidt TD, McGarth KM. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor angioedema of the intestine: a case report and review of the literature. Am J Med Sci. 2002;324(2):106-108.

VIDD

Q:  Ventilator-induced diaphragmatic dysfunction (VIDD) can be evident as early as within first 24 hours of initiation of mechanical ventilation?

A) True
B) False


Answer: A (True)

It is now an established fact that mechanical ventilation can cause diaphragmatic muscle atrophy. The term designated for this phenomenon is known as ventilator induced diaphragmatic dysfunction (VIDD). Studies have shown that it may be evident as early as by the eighteenth hour of the initiation of positive pressure ventilation 1. When it comes to VIDD, any mechanical ventilation more than 24 hours is considered as a long-term mechanical ventilation! 2 VIDD is an umbrella term for muscle injury, atrophy, and proteolysis. The probable cause of VIDD is oxidative stress. This is a worrisome phenomenon as VIDD itself cause difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation and ICU outcomes 3.


References:

1. Levine S, Nguyen T, Taylor N, et al. Rapid disuse atrophy of diaphragm fibers in mechanically ventilated humans. N Engl J Med 2008; 358:1327. 

2. Jaber S, Petrof BJ, Jung B, et al. Rapidly progressive diaphragmatic weakness and injury during mechanical ventilation in humans. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2011; 183:364.  

Goligher EC, Dres M, Fan E, et al. Mechanical Ventilation-induced Diaphragm Atrophy Strongly Impacts Clinical Outcomes. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2018; 197:204.

Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) triad

Q: The classic triad of Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) is?

A) Hypoxemia, neurologic abnormalities, and  thrombocytopenia
B) Hypoxemia, neurologic abnormalities, and a  petechial rash
C) Hypoxemia, lipiduria, and a petechial rash
D) Hypoxemia, fat globules in the pulmonary circulation, and a petechial rash
E) Hypoxemia, fat globules in the pulmonary circulation, and coagulation abnormalities



Answer: B

The objective of above question is to emphasize that FES is a clinical diagnosis. Radiological and laboratory workup is supportive. Only choice B has three clinical findings. All other choices include diagnostic workup. Classic triad is

•  hypoxemia, 
• neurologic abnormalities, and 
• a petechial rash

Thrombocytopenia, lipiduria, coagulation abnormalities, presence of fat in the sputum, and fat analysis from a wedged sample from a pulmonary artery catheter are all supportive. Also, treatment is supportive till condition resolves by itself.


Reference:

Georgopoulos D, Bouros D. Fat embolism syndrome: clinical examination is still the preferable diagnostic method. Chest 2003; 123:982.

Phlebotomy in ICU

Q: How much blood a patient loses every day in ICU just by phlebotomy?


Answer: On an average 41 mL/day

The objective of above question is to highlight the need to avoid unnecessary blood draws in ICU. Apart from a direct blood draw, other measures which may help in conserving blood loss include small volume for sampling, point-of-care testing and others.



Reference:

Fowler RA, Rizoli SB, Levin PD, Smith T. Blood conservation for critically ill patients. Crit Care Clin 2004; 20:313.

LVOT

Q: All of the following are parts of management for hemodynamically significant Left Ventricular Outflow Tract (LVOT) obstruction except?

A) Intravenous volume (IVF)
B) Vasoconstrictors without chronotropic properties to increase Systemic Vascular Resistence (SVR)
C) Use of Inotrope 
D) Decrease Heart Rate (HR)
E) All of the above


Answer: C

Hypertrophied Left Ventricle by default has reduced compliance, and very much dependent on preload. Hypovolemia will worsen the hemodynamics and vice versa. Similarly, vasodilatation  is detrimental.

Tachycardyia and strong inotropy will leave no time and space for left ventricular cavity to fill up and will ensue cardiogenic collapse. Bradycardia is preferred.

mechanical thrombectomy in Stroke patients

Q: For mechanical thrombectomy in Stroke patients, which of the following statement is valid?

A) Within 6 hours of stroke symptom onset, whether or not the patient received intravenous tPA
B) Within 6 hours of stroke symptom onset, only if intravenous tPA is not given
C) Within 3 hours of stroke symptom onset, whether or not the patient received intravenous tPA
D) Within 3 hours of stroke symptom onset, only if intravenous tPA is not given
E) On call neurologist can decide each patient on a case to case basis.


Answer: A

It is hard to describe here full criteria for mechanical thrombectomy in Stroke patients but ideally as a rule of thumb following few conditions should be met.

1. A clinical diagnosis of acute stroke
2. Femoral puncture can be accessed/performed
3. A deficit on the NIH Stroke Scale of ≥6 points
4. An Alberta Stroke Program Early CT Score (ASPECTS) score ≥6
5. No evidence of intracranial hemorrhage
6. Radiologically documented Intracranial arterial occlusion of the distal intracranial internal carotid artery (ICA), or the middle (M1/M2) or anterior (A1/A2) cerebral artery
7. Age ≥18 years

Actually, mechanical thrombectomy can be extended up to 24 hours in few situations. 

Please refer to references for detailed guidelines.


References/further reading:

1. Powers WJ, Rabinstein AA, Ackerson T, et al. 2018 Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke: A Guideline for Healthcare Professionals From the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Stroke 2018; 49:e46.

2. Berkhemer OA, Fransen PS, Beumer D, et al. A randomized trial of intraarterial treatment for acute ischemic stroke. N Engl J Med 2015; 372:11.

3. Goyal M, Demchuk AM, Menon BK, et al. Randomized assessment of rapid endovascular treatment of ischemic stroke. N Engl J Med 2015; 372:1019.

4. Pexman JH, Barber PA, Hill MD, et al. Use of the Alberta Stroke Program Early CT Score (ASPECTS) for assessing CT scans in patients with acute stroke. AJNR Am J Neuroradiol 2001; 22:1534.

Electrolyte imbalance in alcoholic patients

Q:  In an alcoholic patient, deficiency of which of the following electrolytes may become evident only after 24-36 hours of admission, and can be life-threatening?

A) Calcium
B) Magnesium
C) Potassium
D) Phosphate
E) Chloride


Answer: D

This late hypophosphatemia in alcoholic patients may occur due to various reasons, mainly

1.  Patients with alcohol abuse are usually treated with dextrose-containing solutions on admission to a hospital. Dextrose induces insulin release, which increases phosphate intake by the cells.

2. Refeeding syndrome after admission to the hospital also exacerbates the movement of phosphate into the cell.

3. As patient starts having withdrawal from alcohol, hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis) may ensue, which leads to movement of phosphate into the cell. 

#electrolytes


References:

1. Knochel JP. Hypophosphatemia in the alcoholic. Arch Intern Med 1980; 140:613. 

2. Marinella MA. Refeeding syndrome and hypophosphatemia. J Intensive Care Med 2005; 20:155.

Burch-Wartofsky Point Scale (BWPS) for Thyrotoxicosis

Q: All of the following are parts of diagnostic criteria for thyroid storm except?

A) Thermoregulatory dysfunction Temperature
B) Central nervous system effects
C) Gastrointestinal-hepatic dysfunction
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Cardiovascular dysfunction


Answer: D

 Diagnostic criteria for thyroid storm popularly known as Burch-Wartofsky Point Scale (BWPS) for Thyrotoxicosis consist of following six components

1. Thermoregulatory dysfunction 
2. Central nervous system effects 
3. Gastrointestinal-hepatic dysfunction 
4. Cardiovascular dysfunction 
5. Heart failure
6. Precipitant history

A score of

• 45 or more is highly suggestive of thyroid storm, 
• 25 to 44 supports the diagnosis, and 
• below 25 makes thyroid storm unlikely.

An online calculator can be seen here http://bit.ly/2mYPhKx



Reference:

Burch HB, Wartofsky L. Life-threatening thyrotoxicosis. Thyroid storm. Endocrinol Metab Clin North Am 1993; 22:263.

Lupus nephritis and preeclampsia

Q: 32 year old female at 28 weeks pregnancy is admitted to ICU with acute renal failure. Patient has known history of Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Flare of lupus nephritis and preeclampsia may behave same and hard to differentiate in pregnant patients with SLE. What three points may help to differentiate between them?


Answer: 

1.  Preeclampsia usually only have proteinuria on urine analysis, but lupus nephritis may have proteinuria as well as red, white and cellular casts.

2. During flares of lupus nephritis theremay be probably low complement levels and increased anti-dsDNA antibodies. Preeclampsia have normal or even increased complement levels.

3. Preeclampsia is more prone to have thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes (LFT) and higher uric acid level.

Abovesaid, patient should be treated in conjunction with close consult of rheumatology, nephrology and obstetrics services.


#Nephrology
#Rheumatology
#OB-Gyn



References:

1. Buyon JP, Tamerius J, Ordorica S, et al. Activation of the alternative complement pathway accompanies disease flares in systemic lupus erythematosus during pregnancy. Arthritis Rheum 1992; 35:55. 

2. Clowse ME, Magder LS, Petri M. The clinical utility of measuring complement and anti-dsDNA antibodies during pregnancy in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. J Rheumatol 2011; 38:1012.

Oral Vasopressor

Q: Out of the following which drug is known as oral pressor?

A) Hydrocortisone
B) Midodrine
C) Octreotide
D) Clonidine
E) Methylene Blue



Answer: B 

Midodrine is an alpha1-agonist. Active metabolite of midodrine is desglymidodrine. It activates  alpha-adrenergic receptors of the arteriolar and venous vasculature, resulting in increase in vascular tone. It is an extremely useful drug to use in renal and hepatic patients who frequently require longer ICU stay due to baseline hypotension.

Hydrocortisone is useful only in adrenal insufficiency related hypotension.

Octreotide has been used in conjunction with midodrine for  hypotension in diuretic resistant ascites in cirrhotic patients but has no role standing alone.

Clonidine is an anti-hypertensive.

Methylene blue has been used with success in resistant vasoplegia but it is not available in oral form.

#Hemodynamics
#Cardiology


References:

1. Kaufmann H, Brannan T, Krakoff L, et al. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension due to autonomic failure with a peripheral alpha-adrenergic agonist (midodrine). Neurology 1988; 38:951. 

2. Low PA, Gilden JL, Freeman R, et al. Efficacy of midodrine vs placebo in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. A randomized, double-blind multicenter study. Midodrine Study Group. JAMA 1997; 277:1046. 

3. Parsaik AK, Singh B, Altayar O, et al. Midodrine for orthostatic hypotension: a systematic review and meta-analysis of clinical trials. J Gen Intern Med 2013; 28:1496.

tPA in pregnancy

Q: Use of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) in acute ischemic stroke in pregnancy is a (select one)

A) Relative contraindication
B) Absolute contraindication


Answer: A

Alteplase does not cross the placenta but the major concern is various risks associated with hemorrhagic complications in mother and fetus like placental abruption. The American Heart Association/American Stroke Association guidelines designates pregnancy as a relative exclusions. It requires decision on case to case basis taking in confidence all the providers and the family.



References:

1. Murugappan A, Coplin WM, Al-Sadat AN, et al. Thrombolytic therapy of acute ischemic stroke during pregnancy. Neurology 2006; 66:768. 

2. Albers GW, Amarenco P, Easton JD, et al. Antithrombotic and thrombolytic therapy for ischemic stroke: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133:630S. 

3. Demaerschalk BM, Kleindorfer DO, Adeoye OM, et al. Scientific Rationale for the Inclusion and Exclusion Criteria for Intravenous Alteplase in Acute Ischemic Stroke: A Statement for Healthcare Professionals From the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Stroke 2016; 47:581.

4. Tassi R, Acampa M, Marotta G, et al. Systemic thrombolysis for stroke in pregnancy. Am J Emerg Med 2013; 31: 448.e1–3

Arterial Resistivity Index

Q: What is Arterial Resistivity Index (Resistance Index) (RI)?

Answer:  RI is a measure of pulsatile blood flow that reflects the resistance to blood flow caused by microvascular bed distal to the site of measurement. It is obtained by doppler ultrasound signals. Normal adult value is 0.6-0.7.

Clinical significance: RI is increasingly been used in various disease processes involving kidney (see references), particularly in post kidney transplant. RI above 0.8 co-relates with increase mortality.


#Nephrology
#transplant


References/further readings:

1. Saracino A, Santarsia G, Latorraca A, Gaudiano V. Early assessment of renal resistance index after kidney transplant can help predict long-term renal function. Nephrol Dial Transplant 2006; 21:2916–2920

2. Dewitte A, Coquin J, Meyssignac B, Joannès-Boyau O, Fleureau C, Roze H, et al. Doppler resistive index to reflect regulation of renal vascular tone during sepsis and acute kidney injury. Crit Care 2012; 16:R165.

3. Le Dorze M, Bouglé A, Deruddre S, Duranteau J. Renal Doppler ultrasound: a new tool to assess renal perfusion in critical illness. Shock 2012; 37:360–365

4. Darmon M, Schortgen F, Vargas F, Liazydi A, Schlemmer B, Brun-Buisson C, et al. Diagnostic accuracy of Doppler renal resistive index for reversibility of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients. Intensive Care Med 2011; 37:68–76

5. Kaiser C, Götzberger M, Landauer N, Dieterle C, Heldwein W, Schiemann U. Age dependency of intrarenal resistance index (RI) in healthy adults and patients with fatty liver disease. Eur J Med Res 2007; 12:191–195

Prognostication in SDH

Q: All of the following are prognostic factors in Sub-Dural Hematoma (SDH) except?

A) Age
B) Glasgow coma scale (GCS)
C) Clot thickness ≥10 mm
D) Midline shift ≥ 10 mm
E) Reduced patency of the basal cisterns


Answer: D

Age more than 50 become a prognostic factor in SDH as well as GCS score <7. On CT scan, Clot thickness ≥10 mm, midline shift ≥ 5 mm and reduced patency of the basal cisterns have been described as prognostic factors in SDH.

#neurosurgery
#neurology
#trauma


References:

1. Hatashita S, Koga N, Hosaka Y, Takagi S. Acute subdural hematoma: severity of injury, surgical intervention, and mortality. Neurol Med Chir (Tokyo) 1993; 33:13.

2. Servadei F, Nasi MT, Giuliani G, et al. CT prognostic factors in acute subdural haematomas: the value of the 'worst' CT scan. Br J Neurosurg 2000; 14:110.

3. Howard MA 3rd, Gross AS, Dacey RG Jr, Winn HR. Acute subdural hematomas: an age-dependent clinical entity. J Neurosurg 1989; 71:858. .

Diuretics and patient's positioning

Q: Patients with congestive heart failure (CHF) respond to diuretics better in (select one)

A) upright position
B) supine position


Answer: B

Patients with CHF cannot increase cardiac output on an upright position. Renal perfusion diminishes and diuretic delivery to kidney diminishes. Also, as CHF patients fail to increase cardiac output on upright position, renal salt and water reabsorption increases with increase in norepinephrine, renin and aldosterone levels. Clinically this may be of significance in patients with acute exacerbation of CHF in ICU.

#CHF
#Diuretics



Reference:

Ring-Larsen H, Henriksen JH, Wilken C, et al. Diuretic treatment in decompensated cirrhosis and congestive heart failure: effect of posture. Br Med J (Clin Res Ed) 1986; 292:1351.

Statins

Q; Which of the following disease process may be a cause of dyslipidemia and may predispose patients to statin-induced muscle injury. A patient may need to be ruled out for it prior to the start of statin therapy?

A) Traumatic brain injury
B) Thyroid dysfunction
C) Inflammatory bowel disease
D) Amyloidosis
E) Auditory dysfunction


Answer: B

List is pretty long when it comes to describing statin's side-effects, interactions and possible association with other disease processes which include hepatic dysfunction, proteinuria, cognitive dysfunction, risk for diabetes mellitus, questionable increase of incidence of cancer, cataracts, neuropathy, drug-induced lupus, lower androgen levels in men, and risks in pregnancy.

Muscle toxicity is a well-known side effect of statins. Hypothyroidism is not only a potential cause of this but may also predispose patients to statin-induced muscle dysfunction. It would be of importance to check thyroid function before starting statin therapy.

#Statins
#Endocrine


Reference:

1. Bar SL, Holmes DT, Frohlich J. Asymptomatic hypothyroidism and statin-induced myopathy. Can Fam Physician 2007; 53:428. 

Failed extubation

Q: Which patients have higher mortality (select one)

A) who fail extubation early
B) who fail extubation late



Answer: B

Re-intubation is an undesirable act for any patient but it happens regularly and normally. Normal re-intubation rate in any ICU is around 5-15%. But, it is better to fail extubation earlier in the course, as mortality is highest among those who fail extubation after more than 12 hours.


#Pulmonary
#Ventilators


Reference:

Epstein SK, Ciubotaru RL. Independent effects of etiology of failure and time to reintubation on outcome for patients failing extubation. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 1998; 158:489.

Purulent pericarditis

Q: Purulent pericarditis is defined as?

A) >20 leukocytes per oil immersion field
B) Only if gross pus is present in the pericardium
C) EKG finding consistent with acute pericarditis
D) High glucose level in the pericardial fluid 
E) Low Protein level in the pericardial fluid


Answer: A

Gross presence of pus in the pericardium is diagnostic but is not the only requirement for purulent pericarditis (choice B). Microscopically, the presence of >20 leukocytes per oil immersion field is the threshold for diagnosis (choice A). EKG finding consistent with acute pericarditis (choice C) supports the diagnosis of purulent pericarditis but does not confirm it. Glucose level is usually low (choice D) and protein level is usually high (choice E) in purulent pericarditis.

#cardiology
#infectiousdiseases 



References:

1. Rubin RH, Moellering RC Jr. Clinical, microbiologic and therapeutic aspects of purulent pericarditis. Am J Med 1975; 59:68. 

2. Adler Y, Charron P, Imazio M, et al. 2015 ESC Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pericardial diseases: The Task Force for the Diagnosis and Management of Pericardial Diseases of the European Society of Cardiology (ESC)Endorsed by: The European Association for Cardio-Thoracic Surgery (EACTS). Eur Heart J 2015; 36:2921.

SINS score

Case: 52 year old male with the metastatic lung cancer is admitted to ICU with new onset of leg weakness. Metastasis to the spine is the likelihood. Radiation Oncologist inquired you over the phone the SINS score. What is SINS score?



Answer: SINS stands for the spine instability neoplastic score (SINS). It determines the need of operative treatment for patients with symptomatic vertebral body fractures with instability. If SINS is over 7, it may very well require an emergent surgical approach.

The score can be assessed here http://bit.ly/2tcHBIl

#Oncologicemergencies
#surgicalcriticalcare


Reference:

Fourney DR, Frangou EM, Ryken TC, et al. Spinal instability neoplastic score: an analysis of reliability and validity from the spine oncology study group. J Clin Oncol 2011; 29:3072.

Eschar in scrub typhus

Picture Diagnosis 

Answer: Eschar in scrub typhus

The eschar represents the site of inoculation, where initial multiplication occurs before widespread dissemination. An eschar is typically painless and non-pruritic, and hence patient might not be aware of eschar. A thorough search for eschar is often rewarding. It clinches a diagnosis of scrub typhus, enabling early therapy. The lesion typically upto 1 cm in diameter,has a central tough black scab with slightly elevated dull red areola.It looks like a cigarette burn mark. The eschar resembling ‘cigarette burn mark’ is seen in 95% of cases and is most important diagnostic clue of scrub typhus. There was a significant difference in the distribution of eschars between males and females with a preponderance of the chest and abdomen (42.3%) among females and the axilla, groin and genitalia (55.8%) in males. Some unusual sites of an eschar were the cheek, ear lobe and dorsum of the feet.

#Infectious Disease
#Dermatology


Reference:

Prashant Bafna and Tamilarasu Kadhiravan. Classical eschar in scrub typhus.Indian J Med Res 140, December 2014, pp 792

The artery of Adamkiewicz

Case: 52 year old male is admitted to ICU with massive hemoptysis. The patient was intubated and send to interventional radiology for bronchial artery embolization, which was successfully done. On arrival to ICU plan was made to extubate the patient. As sedation was weaned off, the patient was found to have an impaired motor function of the legs.


Explanation: During bronchial artery embolization inadvertent occlusion of the artery of Adamkiewicz may occur. Artery of Adamkiewicz is the major blood supply to the lumbar and sacral cord. Its obstruction may result in the impaired motor function of the legs. In the majority of patients, the artery of Adamkiewicz contributes to the anterior spinal artery between the T9 to T12 level.


References:

1. Lopez, January; Lee, Hsin-Yi.  "Bronchial Artery Embolization for Treatment of Life-Threatening Hemoptysis". Seminars in Interventional Radiology. 2006: 23 (3): 223–229.

2. Hurst RW. Spinal vascular disorders. In: Resonance Imaging of the Brain and Spine, 2nd ed, Atlas SW (Ed), Lippincott, Philadelphia 2006. p.1387.

INR correction in severe jaundice

Q: 54 year old male is admitted to ICU with severe jaundice, an elevated international normalized ratio (INR) and elevated Liver Function Test (LFT). If elevated INR gets normalize with vitamin K, what does it imply?


Answer: Probable obstructive Jaundice

An elevated INR that corrects with vitamin K administration implies impaired intestinal absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the most probable cause is obstructive jaundice. And if, an elevated INR that does not correct with vitamin K, this implies hepatocellular disease causing impaired synthetic function.

#Hepatology
#Hematology